Friday, February 13, 2009

"Anglo Saxon" meant market-finance; "Continental" meant bank-finance.

From Nick Rowe:

"
The stable "Anglo Saxon" model of finance

Nouriel Roubini is not alone in declaring the "Anglo Saxon" model to have failed. Chris Dillow disagrees. He shows that, judging from GDP numbers, the "Anglo Saxon" countries are not doing worse than the others, so news of the instability and death of the Anglo Saxon model may be exaggerated.

But it all depends on how you define "Anglo Saxon". Chris defines it theoretically as "...lightly-regulated financial markets and high debt...". He defines it empirically as UK and US, in comparison to Japan and the Eurozone.

"Lightly-regulated" maybe, but "high debt" is the opposite of what "Anglo Saxon" used to mean, in past episodes of Anglo Saxon bashing. In fact, if we switch to a more traditional definition of "Anglo Saxon", the current crisis shows the stability of the Anglo Saxon model, and the failure of the "Continental" model.

Any financial system has to transfer temporary command over resources from lenders to borrowers, from savers to investors, from households to firms. At its simplest, the transfer can be direct, via a market, or indirect, via a financial intermediary.

The "Anglo Saxon model of finance" used to mean the first: households would lend directly to firms, by buying firms' equity and debt. The "Continental model of finance" used to mean the second: households would lend to banks, and banks would lend to firms. "Anglo Saxon" meant market-finance; "Continental" meant bank-finance. (This is slightly misleading, since bank-finance really means two markets instead of one: first the market for loans from households to banks; and second the market for loans from banks to firms.)

Defined as it used to be, it's the Anglo Saxon model which has low debt, and the Continental model which has high debt. Let me show why:

Suppose firms have $100 in assets. In the Anglo Saxon model, if firms have (say) a 50/50 debt/equity ratio, there is $50 in equity and $50 debt, both held by households. In the Continental model, for the same debt/equity ratio, that $50 debt is held by banks, which the bank finances by (say) $45 deposits (debt) from households. So the Continental model creates an additional $45 of gross debt. And if the bank holds part of the firms' equity as well, and finances it by deposits from households, the amount of gross debt increases still further. At the extreme, where all household savings are channeled via banks, the Continental system creates an additional $100 of gross debt.

So "Anglo Saxon" does not mean "high debt"; just the reverse.

High debt matters because debt can default, but equity cannot. Firms can default on their debt; banks can default on their debt. In the Anglo Saxon model, we worry about firms' default. In the Continental system, we worry about firms' default and banks' default.

In the current financial crisis, we are much more worried about banks' default than about firms' default. Banks are an essential feature of the Continental model of finance, not the Anglo Saxon model.

Bank failure, and the problems of high debt, mean the failure of the Continental model, and the stability of the Anglo Saxon model, as they used to be defined. The Continental model is failing. The problem with "Anglo Saxon" countries is that they imported too much of the Continental model: too much reliance on banks and debt, rather than markets and equity.

When critics used to complain about the short-termism of markets in the Anglo Saxon model and praised the long-sightedness of bank-finance in the Continental model, this is what they meant. Now the problem has changed, so critics have changed the definition of "Anglo Saxon".

The only stable long-term definition of "Anglo Saxon model of finance" is "whatever system I want to bash right now".

Yes, I am (mostly) Anglo Saxon. How did you guess?

Me:

I'm currently pushing the idea of narrow/limited banks. Wouldn't that qualify as a return to the Anglo-Saxon model?

Hi Don! Maybe. If I like it. I'll call it "Anglo Saxon". If not, I'll call it "Continental" ;-)

A narrow bank that has demand deposits as liabilities, and....government bonds (or something very safe and liquid) as assets? How are the rest of household savings going to be channeled to firms? Via stock markets (including mutual funds)? If so, then yes, that sounds "Anglo Saxon".

Narrow Banks...wasn't it Henry Simon(s?) who advocated that in the 1930's?

Don: yes, it was Henry Simons, but in the 1940's. And Milton Friedman seemed at least partly onside as well.

But if you want a really stable financial system, forget narrow bansk. Forget banks altogether. Firms finance their investment with 100% equity (stocks, shares, whatever, or preferred shares if you like). And households own only shares (possibly in a mutual fund). Households do not own demand deposits, but they hold currency and can write cheques on their brokerage accounts. No banks at all. Pure Anglo Saxon model, at its most extreme. Totally stable. Firms cannot default, because they have no debt, and banks cannot default, because there aren't any. (OK, there is a slight risk of default, or rather bouncing a cheque, if my stocks crash between my writing a cheque and it being cashed.)

No comments: