Wednesday, February 18, 2009

The "non-agency" market, which was once relatively small, overtook the agency mortgage market in 2005

From Clusterstock:

"
Nearly 25% Of Non-Government Mortgages Go Delinquent

housecollapse_tbi.jpgIt wasn't so long ago when you could hear people complaining that the market was irrational when it came to the pricing of highly rated mortgage backed securities. We haven't heard too much of that lately, and thank goodness.

Delinquency rates on so-called "non-agency" mortgages have soared to a record high of 24.13%. In plain English, that means that nearly one quarter of all mortgages not backed by the government in some way are at least 30 days delinquent. The "non-agency" market, which was once relatively small, overtook the agency mortgage market in 2005. It now represents something like 45% of all outstanding homeloans.

The worse levels of delinqecy come, of course, in the subprime market. Nearly 40% of subprime loans are at least 30 days delinquent. Around 24% of Alt-A mortgages are delinquent. In the prime market, delinquencies have soard from just 2.22% two years ago to 12.87% today.

But you don't have to take our word for it. Read Bloomberg's chart to see the full horror."

Me:

Don the libertarian Democrat (URL) said:
"The "non-agency" market, which was once relatively small, overtook the agency mortgage market in 2005. It now represents something like 45% of all outstanding homeloans.

The worse levels of delinqecy come, of course, in the subprime market. Nearly 40% of subprime loans are at least 30 days delinquent. Around 24% of Alt-A mortgages are delinquent. In the prime market, delinquencies have soard from just 2.22% two years ago to 12.87% today."

I talked about this on Setser's blog. The oddity is that riskier borrowers were buying homes at the top of the market, often with ARMs. Say that out loud and it defies belief. A commenter made a good point that the lenders could buy CDSs, but that makes the whole deal even stranger.

On the one hand, loans are going to risky borrowers and are being financed in a way that beats a loan that is implicitly insured by the government and meant to aid riskier buyers. How can that be?

On the other hand, CDSs are meant to hedge these loans, but, since the insurers aren't implicitly guaranteed, either the premiums should be very high or the should be only a partial payment scheme in case of default. Instead, CDSs are risky investments meant to lower capital requirements on lending.

The hedge or counterbalance consists of two risky investments. A bad brew.

I don't see any way to stabilize this crazy of a scheme without large subsidies, which would hardly help in the long run, since it would have to be financed by more debt indefinitely. Am I wrong?

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