"Most of the programs and plans currently enacted (my rabbit's foot aside) are aimed not at preventing a recession. That ship has sailed. To see what I mean, think about the basics of the business cycle.
Recessions tend to be the result of some misallocation of resources within the economy. Since reallocating resources takes time, there is an inevitable period where the economy operates at less than full capacity. The greater the adjustment needed, the deeper and longer the recession.
In the period leading up to this recession, we had a overinvestment in housing. Even if nothing else had happened, the adjustment in housing probably would have resulted in a recession. Loans were made that shouldn't have been made. Houses were built that shouldn't have been built. We need to clear the excess investment (houses)."
This made sense to me, but I wanted to know why.
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Would you say that a similar misallocation occurred in the 1980's prior to the S & L Crisis? What role do you believe that implicit and explicit government guarantees to intervene in a financial crisis played in this misallocation?
In other words, the cause was a series of discrete bad loans made by lenders. What incentives caused this? What caused the willful neglect of risk and lowering of standards, beyond simply trying to make money, which occurs in all profit transactions?
If my question doesn't interest you, leave it?
Don the libertarian Democrat
"Its clear that a number of factors helped spurn on housing investment. But I think the Fed's low interest rates in 2002-2003 were a minor factor in hindsight. I really think the rise of the CDO was the major factor in pushing housing from over-valued into bubble territory."
Then this post:
"In the post from Thursday, I argued that the current recession is the result of classic over investment, in this case in housing. This brings up the very important question of why we had an over investment in housing. (I'm posting a new poll on this subject, but first, you read.)
The potential suspects I'm going to consider are: the GSEs, the Fed's low interest rate policy in 2002-2003, and the rise of structured finance, especially CDOs.
First, one suspect I'm immediately tossing out. Lack of government regulation on lending. There is a perfectly legitimate argument that regulation was too lax. But I'd rather investigate why banks were so willing to underwrite so many sketchy mortgages. Because if there was some perverse incentive to lend money recklessly, then no regulatory scheme would have prevented it. Had mortgage regulations been more stringent, the lending would have flowed someplace else anyway."
Here's the conclusion:
"I argued, over a year ago, that CDOs were the primary culprit in causing the sub-prime problem. Consider: why were mortgage brokers willing to underwrite every loan they saw? Because they knew they could sell the loan. Who was the buyer? Structured finance.
On the lower end of the credit spectrum, structured finance created the leverage. On the top end of the credit spectrum, banks levered their positions through SIVs. All that liquidity flowed right into mortgages, and thus into houses.
Now, you could argue that 1% Fed Funds helped to create demand for structured finance. Sure. There is plenty of inter-related issues here. But in my opinion, without CDOs, the Fed's interest rate policies wouldn't have caused the housing bubble we're seeing now. I'd also argue that low volatility, not low interest rates, were the primary reason why structured finance flourished. The Fed can't really be blamed for creating a low volatility environment, after all, that's their job."
Here's my two cents, which, apparently, is what it's actually worth:
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If I buy bonds, I will be paid more interest for a higher risk that I will lose the principal. There is risk associated with the loss of this particular investment.
The money I use for my bonds is part of the money or assets I own. When I invest in a particular bond, however risky, I must consider the risk of that loss to my total holdings. This risk is different than the risk of the individual investment.
CDO's are no different in your excellent description than any other investment. To the extent that any investment is unclear or the risk uncertain, it is a poor investment. The CDO's have a ladder of risk and rewards. Period.
In other words, one can question the sense of investing in CDO's. One can also consider the risk to your total holdings, i.e., how much you invest in CDO's of your total wealth.
GSE's main problem was the system of implicit and explicit government guarantees to intervene.
While it makes sense to look for investments that pay more than the safest investments, there is no rule that you need to invest foolishly. That doesn't wash. At most, it's a necessary condition.
The CDO's are like every investment. The sound rules of investment apply also here.
"Because they knew they could sell the loan. Who was the buyer? Structured finance."
I cannot conceive that the amounts risked would have been undertaken without the understanding that the government and Fed would intervene to protect those investments. Otherwise, it simply comes down to poor investing, fraud, negligence, wishful thinking, fiduciary irresponsibility, etc. If there were riskier investments called for, it was because individuals were willing to take more risks. That's what needs to be explained. Not the instruments created to serve the need. If it wouldn't have been CDO's, it would have been foreign investments, riskier bonds, whatever.
To the extent that a person can be fooled by risk, there is no solution on earth to that.
This is a human agency as opposed to a mechanistic explanation as I term them.
I'm on my own in thinking of these things this way, but that's okay.
However, I want to complement this blog and the comments on the last two days especially. They were excellent. I'll keep reading, because I'm learning so much. Take care.
Don the libertarian Democrat
Here's the comment:
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I agree with several comments here that suggest there is a deeper reason for our problem. I'd say it gets down to a principal/agent problem. From a separation of mortgage origination from mortage investing to corporate managers not being aligned with long-term shareholder value. Its all principal/agent.
And clearly the long-term evidence for positive home price appreciation lulled people to thinking these securities were safer than they turned out to be. But what happened to cause this long-term trend to end?
So in my post I'm thinking more specifically to what triggered this housing bubble. I'd say it was creativity in creating mortgage structures.
We know with hindsight that once CDOs started re-packaging mezz ABS products, the game changed. This created a ready market for the difficult-to-sell portion of ABS deals: the mezz. And because the collateral was already investment-grade, it was relatively easy for ABS CDOs to get AAA ratings on their senior pieces.
And thus demand for ABS (and the thus loans) expanded greatly. That's the proximate cause for the bubble.
"Recessions tend to be the result of some misallocation of resources within the economy."
One thing that might be useful is an explanation of how this occurred. What causes this misallocation?
Don the libertarian Democrat