I doubt a week has gone by since last summer during which I haven't seen some pundit or other trot out Walter Bagehot's dictum that in the event of a credit crunch, the central bank should lend freely at a penalty rate. More often than not, this is contrasted with the actions of the Federal Reserve, which seems to be lending freely at very low interest rates.
Ben Bernanke, in a speech today, addressed this criticism directly:
What are the terms at which the central bank should lend freely? Bagehot argues that "these loans should only be made at a very high rate of interest". Some modern commentators have rationalized Bagehot's dictum to lend at a high or "penalty" rate as a way to mitigate moral hazard--that is, to help maintain incentives for private-sector banks to provide for adequate liquidity in advance of any crisis. I will return to the issue of moral hazard later. But it is worth pointing out briefly that, in fact, the risk of moral hazard did not appear to be Bagehot's principal motivation for recommending a high rate; rather, he saw it as a tool to dissuade unnecessary borrowing and thus to help protect the Bank of England's own finite store of liquid assets. Today, potential limitations on the central bank's lending capacity are not nearly so pressing an issue as in Bagehot's time, when the central bank's ability to provide liquidity was far more tenuous.
I'm no expert on Walter Bagehot, and in fact I admit I've never read Lombard Street. But I'll trust in Bernanke as an economic historian on this one, unless and until someone else makes a persuasive case that Bagehot's penalty rate really was designed to punish the feckless rather than just to preserve the Bank of England's limited liquidity."
“So, for anyone who owns the underlying bond, a CDS will allow them to protect the principal on that bond in exchange for sacrificing some of the yield on that bond.”
This just looks like insurance.
A. If AIG defaults, B has to go out and buy $100 million par value of AIG bonds.
B. B has to pay out $500,000 per month for the life of the agreement and receives nothing.
Why couldn’t this transaction be tied to anything? Wheat, currency, anything that I’d have to buy if it’s devalued? In other words, if you don’t own it, peg it to anything. Is there some reason to peg it to bonds or mortgages, as opposed to anything else?
If my question doesn’t make sense, don’t answer it. If you don’t want it on the blog but can answer me, please email me. Thanks, Don
And here's his answer, which is very clear and interesting:
"Hi Don,
Great name! Yes, it does look like insurance. At at a bilateral level, it is. However, insurance regulations don’t work in swap markets. Here’s why:
http://derivativedribble.wordpress.com/2008/10/21/the-regulatory-gong-show-new-york-struts-and-frets-its-hour-upon-the-stage/
Derivative contracts can indeed be linked to any objectively observable and measurable event, e.g., the occurrence of a hurricane. These types of things exist. They’re called “weather bonds.”
I’m writing a piece on “synthetic instruments” which will discuss things like this so keep an eye out for it!"
I'm going to, and you should as well.